a random thought about regressive assimilation

[fox]

why don't we say *imvisible? (is it because [v] is labiodental rather than bilabial?)

Comments

[darthfox.livejournal.com]

There's pretty much no consonant left, just the nasalized vowel before it, the tongue is totally wrong for English.

yeah, but a nasalized vowel is not more nasal than a nasal consonant. it's just more vocalic.

[wholenother.livejournal.com]

Fair enough. The nasality is just very obvious. Like the difference between a white light in the sun and the same one at night.

[darthfox.livejournal.com]

i think that's the difference between the nasal vowel and the oral vowel you're hearing -- not the difference between the nasal vowel and the nasal consonant.